O: 1Z0-083 - Question Set 1

Question 1.

Which two are true about diagnosing Oracle Database failure situations using Data Recovery Advisor? (Choose two.)
A. Using the Data Recovery Advisor LIST FAILURE command always requires that the database for which failures are to be listed is in MOUNT state.
B. A failure can be closed only when it has been repaired.
C. Data Recovery Advisor can be used if a database is closed.
D. The Data Recovery Advisor CHANGE FAILURE command can be used only to change failure priorities.
E. Data Recovery Advisor can proactively check for failures.

Question 2.

An online RMAN backup of the CDB was taken an hour before Restore Point R1 was created.
You want to recover PDB1 to Restore Point R1.
How do you achieve this?
A. Execute FLASHBACK PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 TO RESTORE POINT R1 by using RMAN while connected to PDB1.
B. Execute FLASHBACK PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 TO RESTORE POINT R1 by using SQL while connected to PDB1.
C. Execute FLASHBACK PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 TO RESTORE POINT R1 by using SQL while connected to CDB$ROOT.
D. Execute FLASHBACK PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 TO RESTORE POINT R1 by using RMAN while connected to CDB$ROOT.
E. This cannot be done due to the lack of a clean restore point.

Question 3.

Which three can be done using Oracle Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) starting from Oracle Database 19c? (Choose three.)
A. cloning a remote container database in interactive mode
B. cloning a remote pluggable database in silent mode
C. relocating a remote pluggable database in interactive mode
D. relocating a remote container database in silent mode
E. cloning a remote container database in silent mode
F. relocating a remote pluggable database in silent mode
G. relocating a remote container database in interactive mode

BEF

Question 4.

Which two are true about creating RMAN backups for an Oracle container database? (Choose two.)
A. Tablespaces from different PDBs with identical names must be backed up by connecting RMAN separately to each PDB to back up the tablespaces.
B. The BACKUP DATABASE command will create a pluggable database (PDB) backup when RMAN is connected to a PDB.
C. SPFILE backups can be created while connected to an application root PDB.
D. The BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG command will back up archive logs when RMAN is connected to a PDB.
E. The BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE command can be used to back up CDB$ROOT.

Question 5.

Which four are true about RMAN backup sets? (Choose four.)
A. A backup piece can belong to only one backup set.
B. A data file can be split into multiple sections stored in different backup sets.
C. A data file can be split into multiple sections stored in different backup pieces in the same backup set.
D. Blocks from multiple data files can be contained in one backup piece.
E. A backup set can contain only one backup piece.
F. A backup set must be written to media.
G. A backup set must be written to disk.
H. Blocks from multiple data files can be contained in one backup set.

ACDH

Question 6.

The USERS tablespace consists of data files 3 and 4 and must always be online in read/write mode. Which two are true about using RMAN to perform an open database back up of this tablespace? (Choose two.)
A. Backups must be done incrementally.
B. Backups must be contained in backup sets.
C. Backups can be taken only if the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode.
D. Backups can be done incrementally.
E. The database must be registered in an RMAN catalog.
F. Only consistent backups can be created.

Question 7.

You have configured RMAN SBT channels to write backups to media.
You then take an RMAN backup by using this command:
RMAN> BACKUP AS COMPRESSED BACKUPSET
  DATABASE
  KEEP UNTIL TIME 'SYSDATE + 730'
  RESTORE POINT 'OLD_CONFIGURATION';
Which three are true? (Choose three.)
A. The restore point is a label for the system change number (SCN) that will be saved two years after the archival backup was taken.
B. The data file backups in the self-contained archive backup are not considered obsolete for two years regardless of the retention policy.
C. All archive logs created after this backup are kept for two years.
D. The SPFILE is included in the self-contaied archival backup.
E. The control file is included in the self-contained archival backup.
F. The restore point is a label for the system change number (SCN) before the archival backup was taken.

BDE

Question 8.

Which three are true in Oracle 19c and later releases? (Choose three.)
A. If the password file location changes, then the new location is used automatically by the Oracle Server.
B. Schema Only accounts can be granted administrator privileges.
C. All the Oracle-supplied accounts are Schema Only accounts.
D. Privilege Analysis is included in Oracle Enterprise Edition and no longer requires Database Vault.
E. Unified Auditing can be configured to audit only events that are issued indirectly by an audited user.
F. Unified Auditing can be configured to audit only events that are issued directly by an audited user.

BDF

Question 9.

Which three are true about Recovery Manager (RMAN) in Oracle Database 19c and later releases? (Choose three.)
A. It is only possible for RMAN to connect to a pluggable database as a target if an RMAN Virtual Private Catalog is used.
B. It is always possible for RMAN to connect to a pluggable database as a target if any RMAN Catalog is used.
C. A Virtual Private Catalog used to register a container database must be created in a pluggable database.
D. A Virtual Private Catalog used to register a container database can be created in a pluggable database.
E. It is always possible for RMAN to connect to a pluggable database as a target.
F. A Virtual Private Catalog used to register a container database can be created in a non-container database.

DEF

Question 10.

Which two are true about Oracle instance recovery? (Choose two.)
A. Recovery begins from the beginning of the CURRENT redo log group.
B. Recovery begins from the last checkpoint position that was calculated by the Database Writer before instance failure.
C. Recovery begins from the start of any ACTIVE redo log group or the start of the CURRENT log group if no other group is ACTIVE.
D. Recovery reads redo until the end of the redo thread. SMON rolls back any dead transactions, and then the datanase is opened.
E. Recovery begins from the last checkpoint position that was recorded in the control file by the checkpoint process (CKPT).
F. Recovery reads redo until the end of the redo thread, and then opens the database. SMON then rolls back any dead transactions.

Question 11.

Which three are true about performing an Oracle Database install on Linux? (Choose three.)
A. The runfixup.sh script can install missing RPMs.
B. The Oracle Preinstallation RPM must be used to configure the Oracle database installation owner, the Oracle Inventory group, and an Oracle administrative privileges group.
C. It allows you to select the languages supported by the Oracle database server.
D. It can be done before installing Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server.
E. The Oracle Preinstallation RPM can be used to configure the Oracle database installation owner, the Oracle Inventory group, and an Oracle administrative privileges group.
F. It can be done after installing Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server.
G. The Oracle database administrator must be granted access to the root operating system account to tun root privileged scripts.

DEF

Question 12.

Oracle Managed Files (OMF) is enabled in a CDB and this command is successfully executed:
CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE app1
AS APPLICATION CONTAINER
ADMIN USER admin1 IDENTIFIED BY app_123 ROLES=(CONNECT);
Which 3 are true?

Which three are true? (Choose three.)
A. Application PDBs that are subsequently created in the APP1 application container will be cloned from APP1$SEED.
B. An application seed PDB is created for APP1.
C. An application root PDB is created for APP1.
D. A default service is created for the application root APP1.
E. Application PDBs that are subsequently created in the APP1 application container will be cloned from PDB$SEED.
F. APP1 can never be unplugged.

CDE

Question 13.

Which two are true about automatic block repair? (Choose two.)
A. Automatic block repair can repair blocks with no standby database if DB_BLOCK_CHECKING = TRUE.
B. Real-Time Query must be enabled on a physical standby database for automatic block repair to be done on that physical standby database.
C. Real-Time Query must be enabled on a primary database for automatic block repair to be done on any of its physical standby databases.
D. It is not possible for media corrupt blocks.
E. Real-Time Query must be enabled on a physical standby database for automatic block repair to be done on its primary database.

Question 14.

Which three are true about Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)? (Choose three.)
A. By default, AWR snapshots are taken every 60 minutes.
B. Its collection level is determined by the value of the STATISTICS_LEVEL database parameter.
C. By default, AWR snapshots are retained for 7 days. -- this is 8 days
D. The taking of AWR snapshots can be disabled.
E. AWR data is stored in the SYSTEM tablespace.

ABD

Question 15.

Which three are true? (Choose three.)
A. Virtual Private Database (VPD) policies on objects in an application root are automatically synchronized with all application PDBs contained in the application container.
B. Application-common TSDP policies are always container specific.
C. Application-common Transparent Security Data Protection (TSDP) policies can be created only within an application install/patch BEGIN-END block.
D. Application-common Oracle Label Security (OLS) policies cannot be created in an application root outside an install/patch BEGIN-END block.
E. Fine-grained auditing (FGA) policies in an application root are automatically synchronized to all application PDBs contained in the application container.
F. Application-common OLS policies can be created in an application root inside an install/patch BEGIN-END block.
G. Unified auditing can be automatically synchronized to all application PDBs in an application container.

BDG

Question 16.

Which four are true about a Recovery Manager (RMAN) duplication without a TARGET connection? (Choose four.)
A. The NOREDO clause must be used if the backups of the database being duplicated were taken when the database was in NOARCHIVELOG mode.
B. The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is always required when no connection exists to the TARGET instance.
C. RMAN ג€pushesג€ the backups of the database to be duplicated over the network to the auxiliary instance.
D. The NOREDO clause can be used if the backups of the database being duplicated were taken when the database was in ARCHIVELOG mode.
E. RMAN SBT-based backups of the database to be duplicated can be used by the auxiliary instance.
F. The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is always required when no connection exists to the recovery catalog and the TARGET database is closed.
G. The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is always required when no connection exists to the recovery catalog and the TARGET database is opened.
H. RMAN disk-based backups of the database to be duplicated can be used by the auxiliary instance.

ADEH

Question 17.

Examine this configuration:
1. The ORCL database data files are in Automatic Storage Management (Oracle ASM) disk group +DATA.
2. ORCL uses disk group +FRA for the Fast Recovery Area.
3. LISTENER is the listener for ORCL.
4. The database, listener, ASM instance, and ASM disk groups are managed by Oracle Restart.
5. All components are currently shut down.
You execute this command:

$srvctl start database -d ORCL

What is the outcome?
A. The ORCL database, the Oracle ASM instances, the +DATA and +FRA disk groups, and the LISTENER are started.
B. Only the ORCL database instance is started.
C. Only the ORCL database and the ASM instances are started.
D. Only the ORCL database instance, the Oracle ASM instance, and the +DATA and +FRA disk groups are started.
E. Only the ORCL database instance and the +DATA and +FRA disk groups are started.

Question 18.

Which two are true about Oracle instance recovery? (Choose three.)
A. Recovery begins from the beginning of the CURRENT redo log group.
B. Recovery begins from the last checkpoint position that was calculated by the Database Writer before instance failure.
C. Recovery begins from the start of any ACTIVE redo log group or the start of the CURRENT log group if no other group is ACTIVE.
D. Recovery reads redo until the end of the redo thread. SMON rolls back any dead transactions, and then the datanase is opened.
E. Recovery begins from the last checkpoint position that was recorded in the control file by the checkpoint process (CKPT).
F. Recovery reads redo until the end of the redo thread, and then opens the database. SMON then rolls back any dead transactions.

Question 19.

Which three methods can be used for heap table data migration after upgrading a database? (Choose three.)
A. using Database Replay
B. using SQL Developer
C. using Oracle Data Pump
D. using operating system file copy utilities
E. using Database Upgrade Assistant
F. using the CREATE TABLE AS SELECT SQL statement

BCF

Question 20.

A container database (CDB) contains two pluggable databases PDB1 and PDB2.
The LOCAL_UNDO_ENABLED database property is set to FALSE in the CDB.
Data file 24 of PDB2 was deleted and you need to restore and recover it.
The only RMAN backup that exists was created with the BACKUP DATABASE command while connected to CDB$ROOT.
Which three are true? (Choose three.)
A. Data file 24 can be recovered only while connected to PDB2.
B. Data file 24 can be restored and recovered while connected to CDB$ROOT.
C. Data file 24 can be restored only while connected to CDB$ROOT.
D. Data file 24 can be restored only while connected to PDB2.
E. Data file 24 can be recovered while connected to PDB2.
F. Data file 24 can be recovered while connected to CDB$ROOT.

BCF

Question 21.

Which two are true about data movement between a non-CDB and a PDB using Data Pump? (Choose two.)
A. Tablespaces are automatically created as neeed while importing full exports in either a non-CDB or a PDB.
B. Oracle attempts to convert conventional database users to local users when moving schemas from a non-CDB to a PDB.
C. A new PDB is automatically created when importing a non-CDB into a CDB.
D. Oracle attempts to convert common users to conventional users when moving schemas from a PDB to a non-CDB.
E. Moving data from a PDB to a non-CDB is only possible by using transportable tablespace export and import.
F. Moving data from a non-CDB to a PDB is only possible by using conventional export and import.

Question 22.

Which two are true about Oracle Optimizer Statistics, their use, and their collection? (Choose two.)
A. The number of table rows is considered when evaluating the cost of accessing a table using an index.
B. Index balanced B*Tree height is considered when evaluating the cost of using an index.
C. The Statistics Advisor can help recommend the best way to gather statistics.
D. Statistics collected using DBMS_STATS always yield the best optimizer result.
E. The Statistics Advisor generates actions for all recommendations.

Question 23.

Which two are true about instance recovery? (Choose two.)
A. It is not possible if an archived log is missing.
B. It is performed automatically after the database is opened; however, blocks requiring recovery are not available until they are recovered.
C. Setting FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET to a lower value reduces instance recovery time by causing dirty buffers to be written to disk more frequently, thereby reducing the number of I/Os needed during instance recovery.
D. It is performed by the Recovery Writer (RVWR) background process.
E. Setting FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET to a higher value reduces instance recovery time by causing the log writer to write more frequently, thereby reducing the number of I/Os needed during instance recovery.
F. It is performed automatically while the database remains in MOUNT state. Then the database is opened.

Question 24.

A database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode.
A full RMAN backup exists but no control file backup to trace has been taken.
A media failure has occurred.
In which two scenarios is incomplete recovery required? (Choose two.)
A. after losing a SYSAUX tablespace data file
B. after losing all members of an INACTIVE online redo log group
C. after losing all members of the CURRENT online redo log group
D. after losing all copies of the control file
E. after losing an UNDO tablespace that is in use

Question 25.

Which three are true about upgrading Oracle Grid Infrastructure? (Choose three.)
A. A direct upgrade can be performed only from the immediately preceding Oracle Grid Infrastructure version.
B. The newer version is installed in a separate Oracle Grid Infrastructure home on the same server as the existing version.
C. An existing Oracle base can be used.
D. The upgrade process will automatically install all mandatory patches for the current version of Oracle Grid Infrastructure.
E. Existing Oracle Database instances must be shut down before starting the upgrade.
F. Only the grid user can perform the upgrade.

BCF

Question 26.

Examine this configuration:
1. CDB1 is a container database.
2. PDB1 and PDB2 are pluggable databases in CDB1.
You execute these commands successfully:
$export ORACLE_SID=cdb1
$SQLPLUS / AS SYSDBA
SQL> SHUTDOWN IMMEDIATE;
SQL> STARTUP MOUNT
Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. PDB1 and PDB2 are in MOUNT state.
B. Redo logs are opened.
C. PDB1 and PDB2 are in READ ONLY state.
D. CDB$ROOT is in MOUNT state.
E. PDB$SEED is in READ ONLY state.

Question 26A.

Examine this configuration:
1. CDB1 is a container database.
2. PDB1 and PDB2 are pluggable databases in CDB1.
3. PDB1 and PDB2 are OPEN in READ WRITE mode.

You execute these commands successfully:
$export ORACLE_SID=cdb1
$SQLPLUS / AS SYSDBA
SQL> ALTER SESSION SET CONTAINER=PDB1;
SQL> SHUTDOWN IMMEDIATE;

Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. Uncommitted transactions in PDB1 have been rolled back.
B. PDB1 is closed.
C. Uncommitted transactions in CDB1 and PDB1 have been rolled back.
D. CDB1 is shut down.
E. CDB1 is in MOUNT state

Question 27.

Which three are true about backup, restore, and recovery operations done without using Recovery Manager (RMAN)? (Choose three.)
A. Backing up a database in NOARCHIVELOG mode using O/S utilities requires that the database instance be started and the database be in the MOUNT state.
B. Backing up a database in ARCHIVELOG mode using O/S utilities requires that the database instance be started and the database be in MOUNT state.
C. An Oracle database can be restored from backup files copied using O/S utilities.
D. Oracle data file backups, copied using an O/S utility, can be added to the RMAN catalog as IMAGE COPIES.
E. Backing up a database in NOARCHIVELOG mode using O/S utilities requires that the database instance be shut down.
F. Oracle archive log backups, copied using an O/S utility, can be added to the RMAN catalog as a backup set.
G. Backing up a database in ARCHIVELOG mode using O/S utilities requires that the database instance be started and the database be in OPEN state.

CDE

Question 28.

Your container database, CDB1, has an application container, HR_ROOT, with an application PDB, HR_PDB1.
You have the required privilege to clone HR_PDB1 to container database CDB2, which does not contain HR_ROOT.
Which two are always true? (Choose two.)
A. CDB1 and CDB2 must be in shared undo mode.
B. A common user must exist in CDB2 with the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE privilege.
C. All transactions in HR_PDB1 of CDB1 must commit before the cloning process starts.
D. Cloning HR_ROOT automatically clones HR_PDB1.
E. The HR_PDB1 clone created in CDB2 will be in mount state when cloning ends.

Question 29.

Your SALES_ROOT application container has two application PDBs.
The SALES_APP application has a common table, FIN.REVENUE, in the two PDBs.
Examine this query and its output:
SELECT containers_default, container_map, table_name
FROM dba_tables WHERE OWNER = 'FIN';

containers_default, container_map, container_map_object,table_name
NO                   YES            NO                   REVENUE
NO                   NO             YES                  MAPTABLE 

Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. The CONTAINERS clause cannot be used in queries on the REVENUE table.
B. The REVENUE table must be a list-partitioned table.
C. The MAPTABLE tables defines a logical partition key on a commonly used column for the REVENUE table.
D. The MAPTABLE table is a metadata-linked table.
E. A container map exists for the REVENUE table, but is not enabled.
F. The REVENUE table partitions are not pruned across the PDBs automatically.

Question 30.

Which two are true about Oracle Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) templates? (Choose two.)
A. The General Purpose of Transaction Processing templates are most suitable when concurrency and recoverability are key criteria.
B. Oracle DBCA templates can store only logical structure and not database files.
C. New templates can only be created by modifying an existing user-created template.
D. The Data Warehouse template is most suitable when transaction response time is the key criterion.
E. Oracle DBCA templates can be used to create new databases and duplicate existing databases.

Question 31.

Which two are true about creating pluggable databases (PDBs) using snapshots in Oracle 19c and later releases? (Choose two.)
A. A PDB snapshot is always a full copy of the source PDB.
B. A PDB snapshot is always a sparse copy of the source PDB.
C. A snapshot copy PDB depends on a storage snapshot which can only be stored on specific file systems.
D. A PDB snapshot depends on a storage snapshot which can be stored on any file system.
E. A PDB snapshot depends on a storage snapshot which can only be stored on specific file systems.
F. A snapshot copy PDB depends on a storage snapshot which can be stored on any file system.
G. A snapshot copy PDB can be created from a stand-alone clone PDB.

A PDB snapshot is a point-in-time copy of a PDB.

The source PDB can be open read-only or read/write while the snapshot is created.

You can create snapshots manually using the SNAPSHOT clause of CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE (or ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE), or automatically using the EVERY interval clause. If the storage system supports sparse clones, then the preceding command creates a sparse copy. Otherwise, the command creates a full copy.

Question 32.

Examine these actions:
1. Create a new database for a recovery catalog.
2. Create a tablespace with sufficient space in the catalog database for the recovery catalog.
3. Configure ARCHIVELOG mode for the catalog database.
4. Create a user to own the recovery catalog schema with quota on the tablespace that will contain the catalog.
5. Grant the RECOVERY_CATALOG_OWNER role to the recovery catalog schema owner.
6. Grant the SYSBACKUP privilege to the recovery catalog schema owner.
Which are the minimum actions that must be performed before executing the CREATE CATALOG command?
A. 2, 4, 5, 6
B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
C. 1, 2, 4, 5
D. 2, 4, 5
E. 1, 3, 4, 5

Question 33.

Examine this configuration:
1. CDB1 is a container database running in ARCHIVELOG mode.
2. Controlfiles of CDB1 are multiplexed in
  '/u01/app/oracle/oradata/CDB1/controlfile/controlfile01.ctl' and
  '/u02/app/oracle/fast_recovery_area/cdb1/CDB1/controlfile02.ctl'
3. The only backup of CDB1 was taken when CONTROLFILE AUTOBACK was OFF.
4. Snapshot controlfile name is
   '/u01/app/oracle/product/12.2.0.1/db_1/dbs/snapcf_cdb1.f'
While CDB1 is open '/u02/app/oracle/fast_recovery_area/cdb1/CDB1/controlfile02.ctl' is accidentally deleted.
To recover from this critical failure, you execute these commands.   
$rman target sys/oracle_4u@localhost:1521/cdb1
RMAN> SHUTDOWN ABORT
RMAN> STARTUP NOMOUNT
RMAN> RESTORE CONTROLFILE FROM
/u01/app/oracle/oradata/CDB1/controlfile/controlfile01.ctl'

While CDB1 is open, ‘/u02/app/oracle/fast_recover_area/cdb1/CDB1/controlfile02.ctl’ is accidentally deleted.
To recover from this critical failure, you execute these commands:

What will be the outcome?
A. It will create ‘$ORACLE_HOME/dbs/cdb1/CDB1/controlfile02.ctl’
B. It will create ‘/u01/app/oralce/oradata/CDB1/controlfile/controlfile02.ctl’.
C. It will re-create ‘/u02/app/oracle/fast_recover_area/cdb1/CDB1/controlfile02.ctl’
D. It will create ‘/u01/app/oracle/product/12.2.0.1/db_1/dbs/snapcf_cdb1control02.ctl’.
E. It will fail because there is no autobackup of the controlfiles.

Question 34.

You plan to install Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server and Oracle Database for the first time on a server.
Examine this command and its outcome:
#id oracle
uid=54321(oracle) gid=54321(oinstall) groups=54321(oinstall), 54322 (dba)
Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. oracle will be an owner of the Oracle Inventory.
B. oracle must be the owner of every Oracle Database installation.
C. oracle can own an Oracle Database installation but not an Oracle Grid Infrastructure installation.
D. oracle will be granted the SYSASM privilege when installing the Oracle Database software.
E. The user account, oracle, and group, oinstall, can be used for all Oracle software installations.

Question 35.

Which two are true about RMAN backups when using a media manager to write backups to tape when there are only two tape drives? (Choose two.)
A. SBT tape compression can be used even if no RMAN compression is configured.
B. Any backup set written to the SBT device in this configuration can contain a maximum of two backup pieces.
C. Any backup written to the SBT device in this configuration can contain a maximum of two backup sets.
D. SBT tape compression and RMAN backup compression should be used in parallel.
E. The SBT device should be configured to use PARALLELISM 2 to allow both tape drive to be used simultaneously.

Question 36.

Which three actions are performed by Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA)? (Choose three.)
A. It recompiles all stored PL/SQL code by using utlrp.sql.
B. It empties the RECYCLE BIN.
C. It performs prerequisite checks to verify if the Oracle database is ready for upgrade.
D. It sets all user tablespaces to "read-only" before starting the upgrade.
E. It removes the AUDSYS schema and the AUDIT_ADMIN and AUDIT_VIEWER roles
F. It increases tablespace size, if required, to meet upgrade requirements.

BCF

Question 37.

Which two are facets of performance planning that should always be considered or implemented for an Oracle Database environment? (Choose two.)
A. defining primary keys for all tables to speed up all queries
B. using check constraints to speed up updates
C. defining foreign keys for all tables to speed up joins
D. the physical data model
E. the configuration of storage arrays

Question 38.

Examine this configuration:
1. CDB1 is a container database.
2. COMMON_USER_PREFIX is C##.
3. PDB1 is a pluggable database contained in CDB1.
4. APP1_ROOT is an application container contained in CDB1.
5. APP1_PDB1 is an application PDB contained in APP1_ROOT.
You execute these commands successfully:
$sqlplus sys/oracle_4u@localhost:1521/cdb1 as sysdba

SQL> CREATE USER C##user1 identified by oracle_4U container=ALL;
SQL> ALTER SESSION SET CONTAINER=pdb1;
SQL> CREATE USER p1_user1 identified by oracle_4U;
SQL> ALTER SESSION SET CONTAINER=app1_root;
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE APPLICATION app1_cdb1_app BEGIN install '1.0';
SQL> CREATE USER app1_user1 IDENTIFIED BY oracle_4U;
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE APPLICATION app1_cdb1_app END INSTALL '1.0';

Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. APP1_USER1 can be created in PDB1.
B. APP1_USER1 can be created in CDB1.
C. APP1_USER1 can have different privileges in each Application PDB contained in APP1_ROOT.
D. C##_APP_USER1 can be created in CDB1.
E. P1_USER1 can be created in CDB1.
F. C##_USER1 will have the same privileges and roles granted in all PDBs in CDB1.

Question 39.

Which two are true about Rapid Home Provisioning (RHP), which has been available since Orcale 18c? (Choose two.)
A. It is an Oracle Database service
B. It cannot be used to upgrade Oracle Database homes.
C. It can be used to provision applications.
D. It can be used to patch Grid Infrastructure homes containing Oracle Restart.
E. It can be used to provision middleware.

Question 39a.

Which three are true about Rapid Home Provisioning (RHP), which has been available since Oracle 18c? (Choose three.)
A. It is an Oracle Database service.
B. It can be used to deploy Oracle Database homes.
C. It cannot be used to provision applications.
D. It can be used to deploy Grid Infrastructure homes, including Oracle Restart.
E. It cannot be used to provision middleware.
F. It is an Oracle Grid Infrastructure service.

BDF

The architecture within a data center consists of an Oracle Grid Infrastructure (12.2 or later) deployment running the Rapid Home Provisioning centralized Service(also referred to as the RHP Server, but in fact merely a service of the Grid Infrastructure) Rapid Home Provisioning and Maintenance enables you to install clusters, and provision, patch, scale, and upgrade Oracle Grid Infrastructure, Oracle Restart, and Oracle Database homes. The supported versions are 11.2, 12.1, 12.2, and 18c. You can also provision applications and middleware using Rapid Home Provisioning. You can use Rapid Home Provisioning to provision, patch, and upgrade single-instance databases running on clusters or Oracle Restart, or on single, standalone nodes. D is true. BDF https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/12.2/cwadd/rapid-home-provisioning.html#GUID-83518C02-E439-49E7-A406-47FE5DCF49B0

Question 40.

Which two are true about duplicating pluggable databases (PDBs) with RMAN? (Choose two.)
A. Two or more PDBs can be duplicated with the same RMAN DUPLICATE command.
B. All tablespaces belonging to a PDB must be duplicated when duplicating the PDB.
C. The auxiliary instance is automatically created with ENABLE_PLUGGABLE_DATABASE = TRUE.
D. A user with SYSDBA or SYSBACKUP must be logged in with RMAN to the PDB to duplicate it.
E. CDB$ROOT and PDB$SEED are automatically duplicated.

Question 41.

Which three are true about the SQL Tuning Advisor? (Choose three.)
A. It checks each query being analyzed for stale statistics.
B. It checks each query being analyzed for missing statistics.
C. It only recommends syntactic changes to SQL statements.
D. It can recommend semantic changes to SQL statements.
E. It considers all SQL statements being analyzed by the advisor task as a group.
F. It builds SQL profiles for each poorly performing SQL statement to prevent regressions.

ABD

https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/tgsql/sql-tuning-advisor.html#GUID-73AB38C1-A7F6-401E-9010-B4476E173673

Question 42.

Which three are true about Database Point-in-Time Recovery? (Choose three.)
A. The database must have FLASHBACK DATABASE ON to perform Database Point-in-Time Recovery.
B. The database must be in MOUNT state when performing Database Point-in-Time Recovery.
C. Database Point-in-Time Recovery is performed by the Managed Recovery Process (MRP)
D. The Database must be in ARCHIVELOG mode.
E. The target point for the recovery must be specified as a stime or System Change Number (SCN).
F. The database must be open RESETLOGS after Database Point-in-Time Recovery.

BDF

Question 43.

A database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode.
Full RMAN backups are taken daily and no backup to trace has been taken of the control file.
A media failure has occurred.
In which two scenarios is complete recovery possible? (Choose two.)
A. when any archived log from, before, or after the most recent backup is corrupt.
B. after losing all copies of the control file
C. after losing an archived log from after the most recent backup. 
D. after losing an archived log from before the most recent backup 
E. after losing the SYSTEM tablespace

Control File is not involved in media recovery Complete recovery needs backup + archivelogs to recover DB/TBS

Question 44.

A database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode.
A full RMAN backup exists but no control file backup to trace has been taken.
A media failure has occurred.
In which two scenarios is incomplete recovery required? (Choose two.)
A. after losing a SYSAUX tablespace data file
B. after losing all members of an INACTIVE online redo log group
C. after losing all members of the CURRENT online redo log group Most Voted
D. after losing all copies of the control file Most Voted
E. after losing an UNDO tablespace that is in use

Question 45.

Which three are true about managing memory components in an Oracle database instance? (Choose three.)
A. With Automatic Shared Memory Management, the database instance can increase the Large Pool size by reducing the Shared Pool size.
B. With Automatic Memory Management, the database instance can increase the System Global Area size by reducing the Program Global Area size.
C. Automatically tuned and resized System Global Area components will always revert to their initial sizes after an instance restart.
D. Automatic Memory Management must be used together with locking the System Global Area into physical memory.
E. With Automatic Shared Memory Management, the database instance can increase the Program Global Area size by reducing the System Global Area size.
F. On Line Transaction Processing systems often use less Program Global Area than Decision Support Systems.

ABF

Question 46.

Examine the command for creating pluggable database PDB2 in container database CDB2.
CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB2
ADMIN USER PDB2_ADM
IDENTIFIED BY 123pdb
ROLES=(CONNECT);

Select three options, any one of which is required for it to execute successfully. (Choose three.)
A. Add the FILE_NAME_CONVERT clause to the statement and set the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT parameter.
B. Add only the CREATE_FILE_DEST clause to the statement.
C. Set only the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT parameter.
D. Set the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT parameter and enable OMF.
E. Enable only OMF.
F. Add the FILE_NAME_CONVERT clause to the statement and enable Oracle Managed Files (OMF)

BCE

Question 47.

Which three are true about Automatic Workload Repository (AWR), Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM), and the Manageability Monitor (MMON) background process? (Choose three.)
A. ADDM can recommend shrinking the buffer cache.
B. ADDM can recommend extending the buffer cache.
C. By default, MMON creates an AWR snapshot every 30 minutes.
D. ADDM performs its analysis only when a DBA requests it.
E. By default, AWR snapshots are automatically purged after eight days.
F. AWR snapshots must be deleted when no longer required by ADDM.

ABE

Question 48.

Examine this configuration:
1. CDB1 is a container database.
2. PDB1 and PDB2 are pluggable databases in CDB1.
3. PDB1 and PDB2 are OPEN in READ WRITE mode.

You execute these commands successfully:
$export ORACLE_SID=cdb1
$SQLPLUS / AS SYSDBA
SQL> ALTER SESSION SET CONTAINER=PDB1;
SQL> SHUTDOWN IMMEDIATE;

Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. Uncommitted transactions in PDB1 have been rolled back.
B. PDB1 is closed.
C. Uncommitted transactions in CDB1 and PDB1 have been rolled back.
D. CDB1 is shut down.
E. CDB1 is in MOUNT state

Question 49.

Which three are true about an application seed pluggable database (PDB)? (Choose three.)
A. It is automatically synchronized with its application root PDB when an application is upgraded.
B. It cannot be added to an application container after the application container has already been created.
C. A new application PDB created by cloning an application seed PDB can have an old version of the application installed after cloning completes.
D. It is automatically synchronized with its application root PDB when an application is installed.
E. It cannot be dropped from its application container.
F. A new application PDB created by cloning an application seed PDB can have an up-to-date version of the application installed after cloning completes.
G. It is not required in an application container.

CFG

An application seed is an optional, user-created PDB within an application container. You can use the DROP PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to drop an application seed. You can drop an application seed when you no longer need it. - After the application seed is created, it is synchronized with the application root so that the applications are installed in the application seed. - When an application in the application root is upgraded or patched, the application seed must be synchronized with the application root to apply these changes.

Question 50.

Which two are true about Oracle Flashback features? (Choose two.)
A. FLASHBACK QUERY can retrieve REDO records from ONLINE and ARCHIVED REDO LOG files.
B. FLASHBACK VERSION QUERY can retrieve REDO records from ONLINE and ARCHIVED REDO LOG files.
C. FLASHBACK TABLE can undrop a column.
D. FLASHBACK DROP can undrop an index when undropping a table.
E. After a database is restored from flashback logs using the FLASHBACK DATABASE command, it is sometimes rolled forward using redo logs.

Question 50a.

Which two are true about flashback features in Oracle Database 19c and later releases? (Choose two.)
A. Flashback logs are automatically purged when DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET is set lower than the time they have already been retained.
B. Flashback logs are monitored and proactively deleted when beyond the retention period defined in DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET only after there is space pressure.
C. Flashback logs are monitored and proactively deleted when beyond the retention period defined in DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET before there is space pressure.
D. Flashback logs are monitored for being older than the retention period defined in DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET and can be deleted by an administrator written event trigger.
E. Flashback logs are automatically purged whenever the value of DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET is changed.

Until Oracle Database 19c, flashback logs that are beyond the flashback retention period set through the db_flashback_retention_target initialization parameter are marked as reclaimable but are not purged until there is space pressure. The reclaimable flashback logs are deleted only when the fast recovery area is running out of space. The DBA cannot manually delete the flashback logs. This means that when a backup needs to be completed and the FRA is 100 % full, the backup operation must wait until the reclaimable flashback logs are purged to free space in the FRA. With Oracle Database 19c, flashback logs beyond the retention period are proactively deleted without degrading the flashback performance and before there is space pressure. The flashback log space is tracked and monitored proactively to provide flashback log retention in a transparent manner. Starting with Oracle Database Release 19c, Oracle Database monitors flashback logs in the fast recovery area and automatically deletes flashback logs that are beyond the retention period (Not Waiting for FRA Crunch). When the retention target is reduced, flashback logs that are beyond the retention period are deleted immediately

Question 51.

Examine this configuration:
1. CDB1 is an Oracle Database 12c Release 2 database containing pluggable databases PDB$SEED, PDB1, and PDB2.
2. PDB$SEED is open READ ONLY 
3. PDB1 is open READ WRITE
4. PDB2 is MOUNTED.
5. ORACLE_HOME is /u01/app/oracle/product/18.1.0/dbhome_1.
You execute these commands before upgrading the database to the current release:
$. oraenv
ORACLE_SID=[CDB1]? cdb1
The oracle base remains unchanged with /u01/app/oracle

$ $ORACLE_HOME/jdk/bin/java -jar preupgrade.jar TERMINAL TEXT

For which databases will fixup scripts be created?
A. CDB1, PDB$SEED, PDB1, and PDB2
B. PDB$SEED, PDB1, and PDB2 only
C. CDB1 and PDB$SEED only
D. CDB1, PDB1, and PDB2 only
E. CDB1, PDB$SEED, and PDB1 only

https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/18/spmsu/running-pre-upgrade-information-tool-for-non-cdb-checks.html#GUID-B04CDE73-45F1-4717-98BB-9FCC209DEC01 Question 52.


You are managing this configuration:
1. CDB1 is a container database.
2. PDB1 and PDB2 are two pluggable databases in CDB1.
3. USER1.EMP is a table in PDB1 and USER2.DEPT is a table in PDB2.
CDB1 user SYS executes these commands after connecting successfully to PDB2:
SQL> ALTER SESSION SET CONTAINER=pdb1;
SQL> INSERT INTO user1.emp VALUES (100, 'Alan',1);
SQL> INSERT INTO user1.emp VALUES (101, 'Ben',1);
SQL> ALTER SESSION SET CONTAINER=pdb2;
SQL> INSERT INTO user2.dept VALUES (1,'IT');

Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. The inserts on USER1.EMP remain uncommitted when the session connected to PDB2.
B. The inserts on USER1.EMP were committed when the session inserted a row into USER2.DEPT.
C. The insert on USER2.DEPT fails because of the active transaction in the parent container.
D. The insert on USER2.DEPT is a recursive autonomous transaction by the child session and is committed.
E. The inserts on USER1.EMP were rolled back when the session connected to PDB2.
F. The insert on USER2.DEPT is uncommitted.
G. The inserts on USER1.EMP were committed when the session connected to PDB2.

Question 52a.

Examine this configuration:
1. CDB1 is an Oracle Database 12c Release 2 container database (CDB).
2. PDB1 and PDB2 are two pluggable databases (PDBs) in CDB1.
After successfully performing all the preupgrade tasks, you execute these commands from the Oracle Database 18c environment:

$export ORACLE_SID=cdb1
$sqlplus / as sysdba
SQL> STARTUP UPGRADE;
SQL> show pdbs
CON_ID CON_NAME      OPEN_MODE    RESTRICTED
2       PDB$SEED      MIGRATE      YES
3       PDB1          MOUNTED      YES
4       PDB2          MOUNTED      YES
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE pdb1 OPEN UPGRADE;
SQL> exit;

$ORACLE_HOME/perl/bin/perl catctl.pl -C 'PDB2'
What is the outcome?

What is the outcome?
A. It fails because PDB$SEED is in MIGRATE state.
B. Only CDB$ROOT, PDB$SEED, and PDB2 are upgraded.
C. Only CDB$ROOT, PDB$SEED, and PDB1 are upgraded.
D. CDB$ROOT, PDB$SEED, PDB1, and PDB2 are upgraded.
E. Only CDB$ROOT and PDB$SEED are upgraded.
F. It fails because PDB2 is not in UPGRADE state.

Question 53.

While backing up to the Oracle Fast Recovery Area (FRA), you determined the backup is taking too long and suspect a performance bottleneck.
Which three are true about diagnosing and tuning these problems? (Choose three.)
A. If an RMAN BACKUP VALIDATE command takes roughly the same time as an actual backup, then both read and write I/O are likely bottlenecks.
B. Setting DBWR_IO_SLAVES to a non zero value can improve backup performance when using synchronous I/O.
C. If an RMAN BACKUP VALIDATE command takes noticeably less than an actual backup, then write I/O is a likely bottleneck.
D. If an RMAN BACKUP VALIDATE command takes roughly the same time as an actual backup, then read I/O is a likely bottleneck.
E. Data files with a high value in V$BACKUP_SYNC_IO.DISCRETE_BYTES_PER_SECOND are a potential performance bottleneck when synchronous I/O is used.
F. Setting DBWR_IO_SLAVES to a non zero value can improve backup performance when using asynchronous I/O/
G. Data files with a high value in V$BACKUP_ASYNC_IO.SHORT_WAITS are a potential performance bottleneck when asynchronous I/O is used.

BCD

http://docshare04.docshare.tips/files/21043/210437276.pdf One reliable way to determine whether the output device or input disk I/O is the bottleneck in a given backup job is to compare the time required to run backup tasks with the time required to run BACKUP VALIDATE of the same tasks. BACKUP VALIDATE of a backup performs the same disk reads as a real backup but performs no I/O to an output device. D -> If the time for the BACKUP VALIDATE to tape is about the same as the time for a real backup to tape, then reading from disk is the likely bottleneck. C -> If the time for the BACKUP VALIDATE to tape is significantly less than the time for a real backup to tape, then writing to the output device is the likely bottleneck. B -> Some operating systems support native asynchronous I/O. If and only if your disk does not support asynchronous I/O, then set DBWR_IO_SLAVES. Any nonzero value for DBWR_IO_SLAVES causes a fixed number of disk I/O slaves to be used for backup and restore, which simulates asynchronous I/O. G -> incorrect - The simplest way to identify the bottleneck is to find the data file that has the largest ratio for LONG_WAITS divided by IO_COUNT

Question 54.

Which two are true about the Oracle database methodology? (Choose two.)
A. The Oracle Database time model should be used to find the database and instance areas most in need of tuning.
B. Tuning activities should stop once the user is satisfied with performance.
C. Tuning activities should stop once agreed service levels for performance have been met.
D. The database instance memory should always be tuned before tuning any file systems.
E. SQL statements should always be tuned before tuning any file systems.
F. The alert log should be used to find the database and instance areas most in need of tuning.

A: time model gives the best view of how the instance spends its time. E: Unless the instance configuration is totally off, the SQL statement tuning has the greatest performance benefit. Question 55.


You issued this command:
RMAN> BACKUP RECOVERY FILES;
Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. All Oracle recovery files not in the current FRA that have not been backed up already, are backed up. Most Voted
B. All non-Oracle files in the current FRA that have not been backed up already, are backed up.
C. All Oracle recovery files in the current FRA that have not been backed up already, are backed up. Most Voted
D. All Oracle recovery files in the current fast recovery area (FRA) are backed up.
E. These backups can be written to disk or SBT.

Backs up all recovery files on disk, whether they are stored in the fast recovery area or other locations on disk. " By default, backup optimization is enabled for this command even if the CONFIGURE BACKUP OPTIMIZATION setting is OFF" => A:TRUE, C:TRUE About BACKUP RECOVERY FILES: "Backs up all recovery files on disk, whether they are stored in the fast recovery area or other locations on disk. [...] By default, backup optimization is enabled for this command even if the CONFIGURE BACKUP OPTIMIZATION setting is OFF. " About BACKUP OPTIMIZATION: "Optimization prevents RMAN from backing up a file to a device type if the identical file is already backed up on the device type". The point that invalidates E is: "The backups can go to SBT or disk. To backup to disk, you must use the TO DESTINATION syntax outlined in toDestSpec. " Since in this question we do not use TO DESTINATION, we are not backing up to disk. REF: https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/rcmrf/BACKUP.html#d11234e4347 https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/rcmrf/CONFIGURE.html#d27691e2023

Question 56.

Which three are true about Optimizer Statistics Advisor? (Choose three.)
A. It can be run only manually.
B. It is part of the DBMS_ADVISOR package.
C. It can recommend changes to improve the statistics gathering process. 
D. It always analyzes all schemas in the database.
E. It runs automatically every night by default. 
F. It is part of the DBMS_STATS package.

CEF

https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/21/arpls/DBMS_STATS.html#GUID-A405E9B8-B8C8-400D-A838-F7DA161BE1A2 Optimizer Statistics Advisor inspects the statistics gathering process, automatically diagnoses problems in the existing practices for gathering statistics, and then generates a report of findings and recommendations. The advisor task runs automatically in the maintenance window. However, you can also run the job on demand. Optimizer Statistics Advisor is built-in diagnostic software that analyzes the quality of statistics and statistics-related tasks. The advisor task runs automatically in the maintenance window, but you can also run it on demand. You can then view the advisor report. If the advisor makes recommendations, then in some cases you can run system-generated scripts to implement them. his section contains the following topics: Optimizer Statistics Advisor inspects how optimizer statistics are gathered. Optimizer Statistics Advisor uses the same advisor framework as Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM), SQL Performance Analyzer, and other advisors. Perform Optimizer Statistics Advisor tasks using the DBMS_STATS PL/SQL package. https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/12.2/tgsql/optimizer-statistics-advisor.html#GUID-D81A7708-FDA0-45BB-A6E2-103858B047AE

Question 57.

Which three are true about RMAN persistent configuration settings, administration, and their effects? (Choose three.)
A. A target database’s persistent RMAN configuration settings are always stored in the target’s control file. 
B. Backup older than the recovery window retention policy are always deleted automatically if the backup location has insufficient space.
C. Backups written to the fast recovery area (FRA) that are oboslete based on the redundancy retention policy can be deleted automatically to free space.
D. The RMAN SHOW ALL command displays only settings with nondefault values.
E. A target database’s persistent RMAN configuration settings are always synchronized automatically with the RMAN catalog.
F. The V$RMAN_CONFIGURATION view displays only settings with values that have been modified.
G. A DBA must specify either a redundancy retention policy or a recovery window retention policy.

ACF

Question 58.

Which two are true about RMAN duplexed backup sets? (Choose two.)
A. A duplexed backup set uses the same number of SBT channels as a non-duplexed backup set for the same number of files.
B. A non-duplexed backup set written to disk can be duplexed to disk by backing up the backup set that is already on disk.
C. A non-duplexed backup set written to SBT can be duplexed to tape by backing up the backup set that is already on tape.
D. A non-duplexed backup set written to disk can be duplexed to tape by backing up the backup set that is already on disk.
E. A non-duplexed backup set written to SBT can be duplexed to disk by backing up the backup set that is already on tape.
F. A duplexed backup set always uses twice as many SBT channels as a non-duplexed backup set for the same number of files.

If your local backup uses a disk channel and want to Duplex to Cloud, Cloud backup uses and SBT channel. The same backup can not be duplexed to mixed kind of channels, see below. Duplexing Backup Sets RMAN can duplex backups to either disk or tape, but cannot duplex backups to tape and disk simultaneously.

Question 59.

Examine these queries and their output:
After a system crash, an instance restart and an attempted opening of the PDBs result in:

Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. Data file 24 can be recovered while PDB2 is opened.
B. Data file 24 must be recovered while the CDB is opened.
C. Data file 24 can be recovered while CDB$ROOT and PDB$SEED are opened.
D. Data file 24 cannot be recovered while the CDB is opened.
E. Data file 24 must be recovered while PDB2 is closed.

It doesn't matter if tablespace to be recovered in SYSTEM. https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/bradv/rman-performing-flashback-dbpitr.html#GUID-35D290AC-CC01-4984-93D6-AE41A3D0D3B6 Datafile 24 belongs to odb PDB1 the datafile belongs to PDB1 and CAN be recovered while CDB is opened or in mount SQL > startup SQL> alter pluggable database all open; ERROR at line 1: ORA-01157: cannot identify/lock data file 9 - see DBWR trace file ORA-01110: data file 9: '/u02/oradata/CDB2/PDB10/system01.dbf' RMAN > restore datafile 9; RMAN> recover datafile 9; SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE pdb10 OPEN; -------

Question 59a.

A container database (CDB) contains two pluggable databases PDB1 and PDB2.
The LOCAL_UNDO_ENABLED database property is set to FALSE in the CDB.
Data file 24 of PDB2 was deleted and you need to restore and recover it.
The only RMAN backup that exists was created with the BACKUP DATABASE command while connected to CDB$ROOT.
Which three are true? (Choose three.)
A. Data file 24 can be recovered only while connected to PDB2.
B. Data file 24 can be restored and recovered while connected to CDB$ROOT.
C. Data file 24 can be restored only while connected to CDB$ROOT.
D. Data file 24 can be restored only while connected to PDB2.
E. Data file 24 can be recovered while connected to PDB2.
F. Data file 24 can be recovered while connected to CDB$ROOT.

BEF

Restoration AND recovery can be done by CDB$ROOT. Recovery can be done by CDB$ROOT or the PDB in question. https://oracle-base.com/articles/12c/multitenant-rman-backup-recovery-cdb-and-pdb-12cr1#tablespace-and-datafile-backups --------------------------------------------

Question 60.

Which two are true about flashback features in Oracle Database 19c and later releases? (Choose two.)
A. Flashback logs are automatically purged when DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET is set lower than the time they have already been retained.
B. Flashback logs are monitored and proactively deleted when beyond the retention period defined in DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET only after there is space pressure.
C. Flashback logs are monitored and proactively deleted when beyond the retention period defined in DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET before there is space pressure.
D. Flashback logs are monitored for being older than the retention period defined in DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET and can be deleted by an administrator written event trigger.
E. Flashback logs are automatically purged whenever the value of DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET is changed.

Question 61.

Automatic Shared Memory Management is disabled for one of your database instances.
Some SQL statements perform poorly due to excessive hard parse activity, thereby degrading performance.
What would be your next step?
A. Run the SQL Access Advisor.
B. Run the Memory Advisor for the shared pool.
C. Run the SQL Tuning Advisor.
D. Run the Memory Advisor for the Program Global Area.
E. Run the Memory Advisor for the System Global Area.

A hard parse rate of more than 100 a second indicates that there is a very high amount of hard parsing on the system. High hard parse rates cause serious performance issues and must be investigated. Usually, a high hard parse rate is accompanied by latch contention on the shared pool and library cache latches B is correct it advises on proper memory size for manual memory configuration when AMM is not in place. see memory architecture for oracle https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/admin/managing-memory.html#GUID-24312D78-522D-4C08-8934-820BE18D34C7

Question 62.

Which two are true about the execution of operating system scripts starting from Oracle Database 19c? (Choose two.)
A. orainstRoot.sh can be executed automatically by the Database installer by using sudo or root credentials.
B. root.sh can be executed automatically by the Database Installer only if it is provided with root credentials.
C. The sudo password can be specified in a response file.
D. root.sh can be executed automatically by the Database installer only by using sudo credentials.
E. The sudo password must be specified in a response file.
F. The root password cannot be specified in a response file.

With or without response file(put all arguments in the command line $ORACLE_HOME/runInstaller -silent ....) you have to input root password when prompted

Question 62a.

Which two are true about the automatic execution of operating system scripts when performing silent mode installation starting from Oracle Database 19c?
(Choose two.)
A. The response file can specify the root or sudo password.
B. The installer will prompt for the root or sudo password.
C. Silent install always runs operating scripts automatically.
D. The response file must contain the root or sudo password.
E. The response file can specify the path of the sudo program.

B, E response file options: oracle.install.db.rootconfig.executeRootScript= true / false oracle.install.db.rootconfig.configMethod= ROOT / SUDO oracle.install.db.rootconfig.sudoPath= oracle.install.db.rootconfig.sudoUserName= oraclelinux79:CDB01 /u01/oracle/products/DB19EE_HOME2>./runInstaller -silent -responsefile /home/oracle/db1.rsp -ignorePrereq Launching Oracle Database Setup Wizard... Enter password for 'root' user:

Question 63.

Which two are true?
06/03/2020 – by Mod_GuideK0 
Examine this output:

Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. Any PDB not specified in the plan will be unable to execute statements in parallel.
B. PDB3 can use all available parallel execution processes at times.
C. PDB1 is always limited to 40% of the available system resources regardless of demand.
D. Any PDB not specified in the plan will be able to use a maximum of 16.5% of the available system resources.
E. PDB3 is guaranteed to receive at least 20% of the available system resources if there is enough demand.
F. PDB2 is guaranteed at least 25% of the available parallel execution processes if there is enough demand.

A. Correct as then a PDB will get assigned the default directive with parallel_server_limit set to 0

B. Correct as parallel_server_limit is not specified for PDB3 and it defaults to 100 A) PDB not specified in the Plan will be assigne to the DEFAULT_PDB_DIRECTIVE. This directive set PARALLEL_SERVER_LIMIT to zero. (No parallel server). B) PARALLEL_SERVER_LIMIT is not set for PDB3 Resource plan directive. The default value of 100% is used in this case.

Question 64.

Which two are true about gathering optimizer statistics? (Choose two.)
A. Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to CDB$ROOT gathers object statistics in all open PDBs except PDB$SEED.
B. Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to a PDB opened in read/write mode gathers object statistics for that PDB.
C. Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to CDB$ROOT gathers object statistics only in CDB$ROOT.
D. System statistics can be gathered only while connected to CDB$ROOT.
E. Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to CDB$ROOT gathers object statistics in all open pluggable databases (PDBs)

SQL> select count(*) from sys.dba_tab_statistics where last_analyzed is not null; COUNT(*) ---- 3610 SQL> EXEC DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS; PL/SQL procedure successfully completed. SQL> select count(*) from sys.dba_tab_statistics where last_analyzed is not null; COUNT(*) ---------- 3649 SQL> alter session set container=ORCLPDB1; Session altered. SQL> select count(*) from sys.dba_tab_statistics where last_analyzed is not null; COUNT(*) ---------- 3507 SQL> EXEC DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS; PL/SQL procedure successfully completed. SQL> select count(*) from sys.dba_tab_statistics where last_analyzed is not null; COUNT(*) ---------- 3598 ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 65.

A user complains about poor database performance.
You want to verify if the user’s session has waited for certain types of I/O activity.
Which view displays all waits waited on by a session at least once?
A. V$SESSION_EVENT
B. V$SESSTAT
C. V$SESSION_WAIT
D. V$SESSION_WAIT_CLASS
E. V$SESSION

A The V$SESSION_EVENT view provides summary of all the events the session has waited for since it started. Question 66.


Which two are true about SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA)? (Choose two.)
A. It is integrated with the SQL Access Advisor.
B. It predicts the impact of system changes on SQL workload response time.
C. It provides before and after execution statistics for each SQL statement in the analysis task
D. It offers fine-grained analysis of all the SQL statements in the analysis task as a group.
E. SQL statements that were originally run concurrently are run concurrently by SPA.

B: Oracle Real Application Testing ... enables businesses to fully assess the outcome of a system changes in test or production. Oracle Real Application Testing is comprised of the following features: Performance Analyzer (SPA), SPA ... C: SQL Performance Analyzer executes the SQL statements captured in the SQL Tuning Set and generates execution plans and execution statistics for each statement https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/ratug/introduction-to-sql-performance-analyzer.html#GUID-F07105CA-0DFA-4102-A8FE-1C11AD201528 ---------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 67.

Which two are true about changing the LOCAL_UNDO_ENABLED property to false in a CDB? (Choose two.)
A. After the change, only a common user with the required privilege can create an undo tablespace in CDB$ROOT. 
B. Any new PDB and existing PDBs are automatically configured to use the default undo tablespace in CDB$ROOT. 
C. After the change, only one undo tablespace can exist in CDB$ROOT.
D. After the change, any user with the required privilege can create an undo tablespace in the PDBs.
E. Undo tablespaces existing in PDBs must be dropped before the change.
F. After the change, each existing PDB has to be reopened for the new undo mode to take effect.

Question 68.

Examine this command:
$ rhpctl move database -sourcehome Oracle_home_path -destinationhome Oracle_home_path
For which two purposes can you use this command? (Choose two.)
A. to switch an existing Oracle Database home to a newer release of Oracle software on the same server
B. to switch to a read-only Oracle home
C. to switch back to the previous Oracle home as part of a rollback operation
D. to switch the Oracle Database home when using a centralized Rapid Home Provisioning server
E. to switch to a patched Oracle Database home

Question 69.

Which three are true about transporting databases across platforms using Recovery Manager (RMAN) image copies? (Choose three.)
A. By default, the transported database will use Oracle Managed Files (OMF)
B. Data files can be converted on the destination system.
C. Data files can be converted on the source system.
D. A new DBID is automatically created for the transported database.
E. Databases can be transported between systems with different endian formats.
F. The password file is automatically converted by RMAN.

ABC

Question 70.

A container database called CDB1 is OMF-enabled.
PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT is not configured in CDB1.
PDB1 was unplugged from CDB1 earlier in the week.
Examine this command, which will be executed in CDB1:
CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE pdb1
USING ‘/u01/app/oracle/oradata/pdb1.xml’
SOURCE_FILE_NAME_CONVERT =
(‘/u01/app/oracle/oradata/’, ‘/u02/app/oracle/oradata/’);
Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. PDB1 data files already exist in the correct location.
B. DBMS_PDB.CHECK_PLUG_COMPATIBILITY must be run in CDB1 before executing the command.
C. PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT must be set before executing the command.
D. /u01/app/oracle/oradata/pdb1.xml does not contain the current locations of data files for PDB1.
E. PDB1 must be dropped from CDB1.

Question 71.

Which four are true about duplicating a database using Recovery Manager (RMAN)? (Choose four.)
A. Duplication can be done by having the auxiliary database instance pull backup sets from the target database instance.
B. A connection to an auxiliary instance is always required.
C. A subset of the target database can be duplicated.
D. A new DBID is always created for the duplicated database.
E. A connection to the recovery catalog instance is always required.
F. A backup of the target database is always required.
G. Duplication can be done by having the target database instance push copies to the auxiliary database instance.
H. A connection to the target database instance is always required.

ABCG

Question 72.

Which two are true about OS groups and users for Oracle Grid Infrastructure and the Oracle Relational Database Management System (RDBMS)? (Choose two.)
A. By default, members of the OSASM group can access Automatic Storage Management and RDBMS instances.
B. The primary group for the Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database owners must be the Oracle Inventory group.
C. The Oracle Grid Infrastructure installation must be owned by the grid user.
D. The Oracle Grid Infrastructure owner owns Oracle Restart and Oracle Automatic Storage Management binaries.
E. The Oracle Grid Infrastructure owner must have OSOPER, OSBACKUPDBA, and OSKMDBA as secondary groups.
F. The same OSDBA group must be used for Automatic Storage Management and the Oracle Database.

Based on 19c documentation. https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/cwlin/creating-users-groups-paths-for-grid-infrastructure.html#GUID-3D41DE23-ED6B-4AF1-BC7F-4EFA1D25E86C

Question 73.

You must transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace from one database to another.
The UNIVERSITY tablespace is currently open read/write.
The source and destination platforms have different endian formats.
Examine this list of actions:
1. Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read-only on the source system.
2. Export the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using EXPDP.
3. Convert the UNIVERSITY tablespace data fies to the destination platform format using RMAN on the source system.
4. Copy the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination system.
5. Copy the Data Pump dump set to the destination system.
6. Convert the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination platform format using RMAN on the destination system.
7. Import the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using IMPDP.
8. Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read/write on the destination system.
Which is the minimum number of actions required, in the correct order, to transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace?
A. 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8
B. 1, 2, 4, 6, 7, 8
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8 Most Voted
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
E. 2, 4, 5, 6, 7

Question 73a.

You want to transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace from one database to another.
The UNIVERSITY tablespace is currently open read/write.
The source and destination platforms have the same endian format.
Examine this list of steps:
1. Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read-only on the source system.
2. Export the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using EXPDP.
3. Create a cross-platform backup set from the UNIVERSITY tablespace on the source system, using an RMAN command that includes the DATAPUMP clause.
4. Copy the cross-platform backup sets to the destination system.
5. Copy the Data Pump dump set from the source to the destination system.
6. Restore the cross-platform backup set on the destination system using an RMAN command that includes the DATAPUMP clause.
7. Import the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using IMPDP.
8. Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read/write on the destination system.
Which are the minimum number of steps required, in the correct order, to transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace?
A. 1, 3, 4, 6, 8
B. 3, 4, 6
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
D. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7

Question 74.

Which three are true about monitoring waits for sessions and services? (Choose three.)
A. V$SESSION_EVENT displays all waits for all past and existing sessions if the wait has occurred at least once for a session.
B. V$SERVICE_EVENT displays all waits for all services if the wait has occurred at least once for a service.
C. V$SESSION_WAIT_CLASS displays waits broken down by wait class only for waiting sessions.
D. V$SESSION_WAIT and V$SESSION both contain details of the event on which a non-waiting session last waited.
E. V$SESSION_EVENT displays all waits for all past sessions if the wait has occurred at least once for a session.
F. V$SESSION_WAIT and V$SESSION both contain details of the event on which a session is currently waiting.

BCF

The V$SERVICE_EVENT view shows, by service, the total waits for a particular event since instance startup. => B: TRUE

The V$SESSION_WAIT_CLASS view aggregates the waits by session and wait class, since instance startup. All sessions are always waiting. => C: TRUE

The V$SESSION_WAIT view lists the resources or events for which active sessions are waiting. The V$SESSION view also includes the current wait information. => F: TRUE

Question 75.

Which two are true about the character sets used in an Oracle database? (Choose two.)
A. Single-byte character sets provide better performance than multibyte character sets.
B. Unicode enables information from any language to be stored using a single character set.
C. Unicode is the only supported character set for Oracle databases created using Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA).
D. Single-byte character sets always use 7-bit encoding schemes.
E. Multibyte character sets allow more efficient space utilization than single byte character sets.
F. Single-byte character sets always use 8-bit encoding schemes.

A > Single-byte character sets result in better performance than multibyte character sets, and they also are the most efficient in terms of space requirements. Ref: https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/nlspg/choosing-character-set.html#GUID-BF26E01D-AB92-48FC-855A-69A5B3AF9A92

B> Unicode is a universal encoded character set that enables information from any language to be stored using a single character set. Ref:https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14225/ch6unicode.htm#:~:text=Unicode%20is%20a%20universal%20encoded%20character%20set%20that,been%20adopted%20by%20many%20software%20and%20hardware%20vendors.

Question 76.

Which three are true about opatchauto? (Choose three.)
A. It performs a shutdown and then a restart of all processes in both Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database home during the patching process.
B. It must be invoked by a user with root user privileges.
C. Patches are applied via opatchauto.
D. Users must always input patch plans to opatchauto.
E. It requires the Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database instances to be shut down before being invoked.
F. It applies patches in nonrolling mode by default.
G. It is used to apply interim patches to Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database home combinations.

ABG

A. It performs a shutdown and then a restart of all processes in both Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database home during the patching process. => True

B. It must be invoked by a user with root user privileges. => true

C. Patches are applied via opatchauto. => not always.

D. Users must always input patch plans to opatchauto. => false, patch plans is optional

E. It requires the Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database instances to be shut down before being invoked. => false

F. It applies patches in nonrolling mode by default. => false, default is rolling mode.

G. It is used to apply interim patches to Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database home combinations. => true

Question 77.

Which three are located by using environment variables? (Choose three.)
A. the Optimal Flexible Architecture (OFA) compliant path to store Oracle software and configuration files.
B. the location of Oracle Net Services configuration files
C. the list of a disk group names to be mounted by an Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM) instance at startup
D. default directories for temporary files used by temporary tablespaces
E. the temporary disk space used by Oracle Installer during installation
F. the maximum number of database files that can be opened by a database instance

ABE

A - ORACLE_BASE, ORACLE_HOME - correct B - TNS_ADMIN, old TWO_TASK, etc - correct C - spfile parameter ASM_DISKGROUPS, not env variable D - [s]pfile parameter DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST, not env variable E - TMP, TEMP - correct F - [s]pfile parameter DB_FILES, not env variable Question 78.


Which two are true about server-generated alerts? (Choose two.)
A. Stateful alerts must be created by a DBA after resolving the problem.
B. Stateless alerts can be purged manually from the alert history.
C. Stateless alerts can be cleared manually.
D. Stateless alerts are automatically cleared.
E. Stateful alerts are purged automatically from the alert history.

Question 79.

Which two are true about the Automatic Database Diasnostic Monitor (ADDM)? (Choose two.)
A. It analyzes a period of time corresponding to the 12 hours of activity.
B. It runs automatically after each AWR snapshot.
C. A DBA can run it manually.
D. Results are written to the alert log.
E. It analyzes a period of time corresponding to the last day of activity.

Question 79a.

Which two are true about the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor? (ADDM)? (Choose two.)
A. When ADDM reports multiple findings, summing all their impacts can yield to more than 100% of DB time.
B. It runs automatically after each AWR snapshot.
C. By default it analyzes a period of time corresponding to the last 4 hours of activity.
D. Results are written to the alert log.
E. By default it analyzes a period of time corresponding to the last 24 hours of activity.

Question 80.

Which two are true about common objects? (Choose two.)
A. They can be created only in CDB$ROOT.
B. They can be only metadata-linked in an application container.
C. They can exist in user-defined schemas only in application containers.
D. They can exist in CDB$ROOT and an application root.
E. They can be extended data-linked in CDB$ROOT.
F. They can be created only in an application root.

Question 81.

Which three actions are performed by the Oracle Preinstallation RPM, oracle-database-server-xxxx-preinstall, for Oracle Grid Infrastructure, where xxxx is the Oracle version and release? (Choose three.)
A. performing checks to ensure minimum configuration requirements for Oracle Grid Infrastructure are met 
B. creating the oracle OS user
C. creating the OSDBA (dba) group
D. creating thte oraInventory (oinstall) group
E. creating the grid OS user
F. configuring the OS for Oracle Automatic Storage Management shared storage access

BCD

Correct: B,C,D

When installed, the Oracle Database Preinstallation RPM does the following: -Automatically downloads and installs any additional RPM packages needed for installing Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database, and resolves any dependencies -Creates an oracle user, and creates the oraInventory (oinstall) and OSDBA (dba) groups for that user -As needed, sets sysctl.conf settings, system startup parameters, and driver parameters to values based on recommendations from the Oracle Database Preinstallation RPM program -Sets hard and soft resource limits -Sets other recommended parameters, depending on your kernel version -Sets numa=off in the kernel for Linux x86_64 machines. https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/ladbi/about-the-oracle-preinstallation-rpm.html

Question 82.

Which three are true about requirements for various FLASHBACK operations? (Choose three.)
A. FLASHBACK transaction query requires undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed between two points in time.
B. FLASHBACK drop requires that the RECYCLEBIN parameter be set to ON.
C. FLASHBACK version query requires that the RECYCLEBIN parameter be set to ON.
D. FLASHBACK DATA ARCHIVE requires undo to store all versions of all rows of a table being tracked.
E. FLASHBACK drop requires undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed between two points in time.
F. FLASHBACK version query requires undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed between two points in time.

ABF

D is false. "Use the CREATE FLASHBACK ARCHIVE statement to create a flashback archive, which provides the ability to automatically track and archive transactional data changes to specified database objects. A flashback archive consists of multiple tablespaces and stores historic data from all transactions against tracked tables. The data is stored in internal history tables."

Question 83.

For which three requirements can you use the USER_TABLESPACE clause with the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE command? (Choose three.)
A. to specify a default tablespace in a PDB cloned from another PDB in the same CDB.
B. to exclude all tablespaces except SYSTEM, SYSAUX, and TEMP when plugging in a PDB
C. to include specific user tablespaces only when relocating a PDB
D. to specify the list of user tablespaces to include when moving a non-CDB to a PDB
E. to exclude a temp tablespace when plugging in a PDB
F. to specify the list of tablespaces to include when creating a PDB from the CDB seed

BDF

A. False. Default tablespaces are defined with the DEFAULT_TABLESPACE clause not with USER_TABLESPACE clause. B. True. Specify NONE in USER_TABLESPACE clause to make only the SYSTEM, SYSAUX, and TEMP tablespaces available in the new PDB. C. False. The USER_TABLESPACE clause is available for use in 3 scenarios: When creating a PDB from SEED, When cloning an existing PDB or When creating a PDB from XML File D. True. When you move a non-CDB to a PDB, and the non-CDB had several schemas that each supported a different application, you can use this clause to separate the data belonging to each schema into a separate PDB. This technique assumes that each schema used a separate tablespace in the non-CDB. E. False. The SYSTEM, SYSAUX, and TEMP tablespaces always are available in all PDBs and cannot be specified in this clause F. False. When create PDB from seed no users tablespaces are defined in seed container e.g. CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE ADMIN USER IDENTIFIED BY ROLES = (dba) DEFAULT TABLESPACE USERS DATAFILE '/mypdb/users.dbf' SIZE 250M AUTOEXTEND ON FILE_NAME_CONVERT = ('/pdbseed/','//') STORAGE (MAXSIZE 2G) PATH_PREFIX = '//'; --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 84.

While backing up to an SBT channel, you determine that the read phase of your compressed Recovery Manager (RMAN) incremental level 0 backup is a bottleneck.
FORCE LOGGING is enabled for the database.
Which two could improve read performance? (Choose two.)
A. Increase the size of tape I/O buffers.
B. Disable FORCE LOGGING for the database.
C. Increase the size of the database buffer cache.
D. Enable asynchronous disk I/O.
E. Increase the level of RMAN multiplexing.

Correct: D,E A. False. SBT buffer can't help on READ phase B. False. Force logging causes all operations in the database to be written to files, but it has no relation to RMAN reading performance C. False. RMAN uses its own buffer cache separate from the database buffer cache D. True. In RMAN operation, asynchronous Disk I/O is always better than synchronous I/O as a server process can begin an I/O and then perform other work while waiting for the I/O to complete.On operating systems that do not support native asynchronous I/O, the database can simulate it with special I/O slave processes (DBWR_IO_SLAVES) E. True. Parallel read https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/bradv/tuning-rman-performance.html#GUID-3303B929-0747-4E78-BED1-9F468213F357

Question 85.

Which three are true about thresholds, metrics, and server-generated alerts? (Choose three.)
A. All metrics are instance related.
B. Cleared stateful alerts are displayed by querying DBA_ALERT_HISTORY.
C. A space usage management alert is automatically cleared after the underlying problem is resolved.
D. They are generated by SMON when a tablespace is 97% full.
E. Metrics are statistical counts for a specific unit.
F. STATISTICS_LEVEL must be set to ALL to generate alerts.

BCE

Question 86.

Which two are true about RMAN encryption? (Choose two.) RMAN encryption keys are stored in the database keystore. The SET ENCRYPTION command overrides encryption settings specified by the CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION command.

Question 87.

Which two are true about Recovery Manager (RMAN) diagnostic message output?

RMANS error stacks should be read bottom up as that is the order in which errors are generated. The RMAN LOG command line clause causes output issued during the RMAN command compilation to be written to a log file only.

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Saturday, February 17, 2024

1Z0-083 - Question Set 1

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